I don't get it either. I could understand it if the banks were bringing suit for fraud, but what has he done to commit fraud against NYC? I read a little while ago that 80% of the case is going away because it is outside the statue of limitations. I wonder what responsibility the lender has to ascertain if the value of the property is as the borrower states?
And what about all those people that obtained mortgages via lending institutions that didn't have to provide proof of their income? Did they commmit fraud too?
If these charges are valid, I wonder how many other large borrowers are commiting fraud too, using this definition?
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